women's health

A 58-year-old asymptomatic woman undergoes a screening mammogram. The image is shown. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the ED with acute lower abdominal pain and nausea. She reports her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and home pregnancy test was negative yesterday. Vitals are stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old woman, status post mastectomy, presents with a lesion. What is the MOST appropriate initial diagnostic test?

A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of increasing abdominal bloating and occasional pelvic discomfort. She reports normal menstrual cycles and no weight loss or changes in bowel habits. Physical examination is unremarkable except for mild abdominal distension. Routine blood tests, including CA-125, are within normal limits. A CT scan of the pelvis is performed, with a relevant axial image shown. Considering the clinical presentation, the normal CA-125 level, and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman, currently 28 weeks pregnant, presents to the antenatal clinic for a routine check-up. She has a history of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) diagnosed at 24 weeks of gestation. Her current treatment includes dietary modifications and regular blood glucose monitoring. Her recent fasting blood glucose levels have been consistently between 5.5 and 6.0 mmol/L, and her postprandial levels are between 7.5 and 8.0 mmol/L. She reports feeling well and has no symptoms of hypoglycemia. Her obstetric history includes one previous pregnancy complicated by GDM, which was managed with insulin. Her current pregnancy is otherwise uncomplicated. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of her gestational diabetes?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her previous mammogram two years ago was normal. The current mammogram is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old woman attends a routine mammography screening. She reports no palpable lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her family history is unremarkable. The image shows the findings of the current mammogram. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old woman with a suspicious breast mass on mammography undergoes a biopsy, which confirms invasive ductal carcinoma. She is referred to an oncologist for further management. What is the next step in her management?

A 55-year-old woman presents for her routine biennial screening mammogram. She denies any breast lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her past medical history is notable only for well-controlled hypothyroidism. There is no family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Physical examination reveals no palpable abnormalities. The provided image is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the left breast. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents to her general practitioner with complaints of severe hot flashes that significantly affect her quality of life. She has a history of breast cancer diagnosed three years ago, which was treated with surgery and chemotherapy. Her cancer was estrogen receptor-positive. She is currently on tamoxifen as part of her ongoing treatment. She is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy due to her cancer history. What is the most appropriate management option for her hot flashes?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine screening mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 68. The provided image is from her mammogram. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old woman presents for her routine mammogram. She has no personal or family history of breast cancer. She denies any breast pain, nipple discharge, or palpable lumps. Clinical breast exam is unremarkable. Review of her prior mammograms shows stable, scattered fibroglandular densities. The current mammogram is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It feels smooth, mobile, and non-tender. No family history of breast cancer. On examination, a 2cm, firm, mobile mass is noted. Considering Australian guidelines for a palpable breast lump in this age group, what is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 58-year-old woman presents for her scheduled screening mammogram. She reports no breast lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her past medical history includes well-controlled hypertension and osteoarthritis. She has no known family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Physical examination reveals no palpable abnormalities in either breast or axillae. The mammogram is performed, and the image provided is a detail from the craniocaudal view of the left breast. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman, G1P1, presents to her general practitioner at 34 weeks gestation complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash. The rash started on her abdomen around the umbilicus and has now spread to her thighs and buttocks. On examination, there are erythematous papules and plaques, some with vesicles, located within the striae distensae of her abdomen. She denies any personal or family history of eczema or other skin conditions. She is otherwise well, with normal blood pressure and no proteinuria. Fetal movements are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old woman presents with a palpable lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. It is slightly tender, especially before her period. On examination, it is mobile, firm, and about 2 cm. No skin changes or nipple discharge. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 62-year-old woman attends her routine mammogram. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her previous mammograms have been normal. The provided image is from the current study. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are regular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the ED with acute lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but denies fever or vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the relevant image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and urgency. She denies fever, flank pain, or vaginal discharge. She is sexually active and uses oral contraceptives. On examination, she is afebrile and her vital signs are stable. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. What is the most appropriate treatment?

A 65-year-old asymptomatic woman undergoes a screening mammogram. The image shows the findings. Her previous mammograms have been unremarkable. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 55-year-old woman with no palpable breast lumps presents for a routine screening mammogram. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 42-year-old woman presents with a new, firm, mobile lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her GP with a palpable lump in her right breast. She reports no pain, nipple discharge, or skin changes. She has no family history of breast cancer. On examination, the lump is firm, non-tender, and mobile. There is no axillary lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine screening mammography. She is asymptomatic with no personal or family history of breast cancer. Physical examination is unremarkable. The provided image is a magnified view from the craniocaudal projection of the right breast. Based on the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate immediate next step in the management of this patient?

A 62-year-old woman presents for her routine mammogram. She has no personal or family history of breast cancer. She denies any breast pain, nipple discharge, or palpable lumps. Clinical breast exam is unremarkable. Her previous mammograms have been negative. The current mammogram reveals findings as shown in the image. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of irregular menstrual cycles and hot flashes. She also reports mood swings and difficulty sleeping. Her last menstrual period was 3 months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old female presents to the ED with acute onset right lower quadrant pain. She reports nausea and vomiting. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago, and she denies any vaginal bleeding. She is hemodynamically stable. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of irregular menstrual cycles and excessive facial hair growth. She has gained 5 kg over the past year and reports difficulty losing weight despite regular exercise. On examination, she has acne and hirsutism. Her BMI is 28 kg/m². Blood tests reveal elevated testosterone levels and normal TSH and prolactin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of amenorrhea. She reports occasional headaches and galactorrhea. She is not on any medications and has no significant past medical history. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are no visual field defects. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 35-year-old woman with a family history of BRCA1-associated breast cancer is considering genetic testing. She is asymptomatic and has no personal history of cancer. What is the MOST appropriate initial step in her management?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 6-month history of worsening dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain, particularly on the left side. She reports no fever, weight loss, or abnormal vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago and was normal. Physical examination reveals mild left adnexal tenderness. A CT scan of the pelvis was performed, the relevant image is shown. Given the clinical context and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 50-year-old woman with a breast lump undergoes a mammogram, which shows microcalcifications. A core biopsy confirms ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). What is the most appropriate next step?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea but no vomiting. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is not sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. Her vital signs are stable. A pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm cyst on the right ovary with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2cm, firm, mobile lump in her left breast, noticed two weeks ago. She is otherwise well. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 30-year-old woman attends her first antenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation. She has no significant medical history and received her last tetanus booster 10 years ago. She is otherwise well. According to Australian guidelines, which vaccination is most specifically recommended for administration during this gestational period?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with concerns about irregular menstrual bleeding over the past six months. She has a history of obesity, with a BMI of 32 kg/m², and was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. She reports that her periods have been irregular for the past few years, often skipping months. She is not currently on any hormone replacement therapy. On examination, she has no signs of hirsutism or virilization. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her fasting blood glucose level is 8.5 mmol/L. Which of the following groups of women is most at risk for developing endometrial hyperplasia?

A 58-year-old woman attends a routine mammography screening. She reports no palpable lumps, pain, or nipple discharge. Her family history is unremarkable. The current mammogram reveals new findings compared to her prior images from the last 5 years. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 35-year-old female presents with chronic pelvic pain. The provided CT was performed. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that started suddenly 2 days ago. Her periods are irregular. She denies fever or vomiting. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 50-year-old woman presents with a newly discovered, firm, mobile lump in her left breast, approximately 2 cm in size. She has no family history of breast cancer. She is post-menopausal. On examination, the lump is palpable in the upper outer quadrant, appears well-defined, and is non-tender. There are no skin changes or nipple discharge. Axillary nodes are not palpable. Considering the Australian guidelines for breast lump assessment, which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of severe right lower abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting but denies fever or urinary symptoms. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago, and she is sexually active. On examination, she has tenderness in the right lower quadrant with guarding. A pelvic ultrasound reveals a 5 cm right ovarian cyst with free fluid in the pelvis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 35-year-old woman with a strong family history of breast cancer (mother and sister diagnosed before age 40) is concerned about her risk. What is the most appropriate genetic testing for this patient?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period. She reports no fever or chills. On examination, her blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, heart rate is 110 bpm, and she appears pale and diaphoretic. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the lower quadrants without rebound tenderness or guarding. A pelvic examination shows a closed cervical os with moderate bleeding. A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right lower quadrant. A urine pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and bloating. Her periods are regular. An abdominal CT scan is performed. Based on the image, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 31-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and bloating for 3 months. Her periods are regular. Pelvic exam reveals mild adnexal tenderness. A CT scan is performed, with a relevant image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?